Thursday, December 02, 2010

2 Tim

How is it that in verse 12 it says "if we deny Him, He will deny us" and the verse after that then says, "if we are unfaithful, He remains faithful"? Isn't that a contradiction? And yet there must br a level on which it is not. -small explosion in Sicheng's brain- there might be something to be unearthed here...

Ok verse 13 actually says, "if we are unfaithful, He remains faithful, since He cannot deny Himself." My first thought was, 'that last line no link leh.' but then again, if u follow the logic of this scripture, It's saying God remains faithful because He cannot deny Himself, i.e. if God were unfaithful to us He would be denying Himself. Does that mean that if we are unfaithful to God we're denying ourselves? Or is He saying this because He swore upon Himself that He would always be faithful to everyone of us? And this still doesn't resolve the question about how u can deny someone and still be faithful to them... Hmm...

1 comment:

Glen Davis said...

The verse is talking about two different things: apostasy (denying him) and not being perfect (being faithless).

If we renounce Jesus, then we have cut ourselves off from the only source of forgiveness and salvation. It is similar to "blasphemy against the Holy Spirit" spoken of elsewhere in Scripture. It's a sin that, by its very nature, makes repentance impossible.

But this is quite different from our being faithless to Jesus. We are faithless (not reliable) whenever we lie, nurture a grudge, indulge our pride, etc.

An analogy might help: a marriage can survive adultery (being faithless), but by the very definition of marriage it cannot survive divorce (denying him).